To which of the wives does an oath of divorce issued by a husband married to more than one woman apply, or does it apply to all of his wives?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a man divorces and has more than one wife, and he does not specify one, or there is a reason that necessitates specifying her, then all of them are divorced. And if the husband says: "Divorce is incumbent upon me," and he has more than one wife, then the intention or the reason is acted upon. Otherwise, the issue is based on the two narrations regarding the occurrence of three divorces for a single wife. It has been said that divorce occurs for all wives, not just one; because the occurrence of three divorces for a single wife is forbidden, unlike for multiple wives.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/75672
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 75672
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy