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Is seeking a divorce considered a sin if the wife's harsh experience with her husband has been repeated, especially given the verbal abuse, threats, and the husband's appropriation of her money despite his ability to provide for her, knowing that he prays and gives zakat, that she is his second wife, and that she lives with him abroad without adequate housing provided for her?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

It is not permissible for a husband to verbally abuse his wife or her family. The wife has the right to seek a divorce if he does so, and there is no sin upon her. Jurists have stipulated that abuse and cursing constitute harm that permits seeking a divorce. The husband does not have the right to take anything from his wife's money except with her consent, or if he had stipulated it as a condition for permitting her to work. The husband must provide a suitable dwelling for his wife, and it is not required for him to own the dwelling. It is advised to be patient and understanding, and not to resort to divorce until all means of reconciliation have been exhausted, and the wife weighs the harm of divorce against the harm of remaining with him in that state.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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