Does divorce occur by saying "By God's covenant, I am not bound to you" twice, while the speaker was in a state of extreme anger and did not intend divorce?

Divorce depends on the husband's intention. If he did not intend divorce with this ambiguous phrase, then it does not occur, as there is a possibility he meant other things. However, if he explicitly intended it as a divorce, then one divorce occurs. If he intended the second phrase as a confirmation of the first, then nothing occurs. But if he intended it as another divorce, then it occurs.