Does a divorce occur with the wife's saying, "Divorce me," while angry, and repeating that, especially after the husband warned her that repeating it would be considered a divorce, and then he ignored the matter when she repeated it?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
It appears that the husband's phrase is an allusion that could mean either divorce or a promise of it. So, if the husband did not intend to make the divorce contingent on the wife's saying "Divorce me," then no divorce occurred. But if he did intend to make it contingent, then it has occurred.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/173501
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 173501
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy