Is it permissible for a man to seek pleasure from his wife, such as by touching her body, while she is praying, knowing that this distracts her from her prayer and disrupts her reverence? And is her informing him that she is innocent of his action sufficient excuse for her, or does she share in the sin?
The discussion concerning this issue depends on two aspects:
First: The invalidation of the prayer, which relies on the difference of opinion regarding the nullification of ablution by touch.
Second: The sinfulness of the act, distinguishing between obligatory (fard) and supererogatory (nafila) prayers. The husband sins by interrupting his wife's obligatory prayer. As for the supererogatory prayer, it is permissible for the husband to interrupt it if he needs his wife, because his right is obligatory and takes precedence over a supererogatory act.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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