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The question

What is the ruling of Islamic law regarding a woman who has been verbally divorced remaining in a non-Islamic country, receiving a large alimony from her husband, and refusing to finalize the divorce to prevent him from marrying, knowing that the marriage took place in an Islamic country? Does she still deserve alimony and housing after more than a year has passed since her verbal divorce and the expiration of her waiting period (iddah)?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The question included inquiries about the ruling on oral divorce and its implications regarding financial support () and housing (sukna) for the divorced woman, the ruling on a woman taking more than her due share of financial support, and the ruling on litigating in man-made courts. It was clarified that oral divorce is valid and its effects take place even if not documented, and that a judge's ruling does not make lawful what is unlawful, nor unlawful what is lawful. This was supported by the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, who said: "Indeed, you bring your disputes to me, and perhaps some of you are more eloquent in presenting their arguments than others. So, if I rule in favor of someone concerning a right belonging to his brother, based on his statement, then I am only cutting off for him a piece of hellfire, so he should not take it." The woman was warned against taking more than her due, and against preventing the man from his rights, such as marriage, reminding her of her responsibility before Allah. As for litigating in man-made courts, this has been detailed in previous fatwas.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
77483
Imported
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Source text, unreviewed
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