What is the ruling on someone who says, "Every woman I marry is divorced," without naming or specifying? And does the same ruling apply to someone who says, "All women in Libya," or "in Asia and Europe," are divorced if he marries any of them? And what is the ruling on someone who says to a specific woman, "So-and-so is divorced," or "So-and-so is threefold divorced," before proposing to her or marrying her?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Scholars have differed regarding one who says: "Every woman I marry is divorced." According to the Maliki school, nothing occurs if he does not specify a tribe or a woman by name. However, the majority of scholars hold that divorce does not occur before marriage, citing the Hadith: "There is no divorce for the son of Adam concerning what he does not possess." This is the view of the majority of the Companions, the Tabi'un, and the Imams, including Al-Shafi'i and Ahmad. Therefore, one who says: "The women of Libya are divorced if I marry them," or "If I marry so-and-so, she is divorced," is not bound by the divorce if he marries.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/50008