What is the ruling regarding a husband uttering the word "I divorce" three consecutive times, without saying "I divorce you," believing that the divorce does not take effect with his Chinese utterance, knowing that Muslims in China use the Arabic term for divorce?

Scholars have differed on the translation of the word "divorce" (طلاق) into non-Arabic languages. Many of them hold that it is an explicit pronouncement that does not require intention. The Malikis, however, are of the view that it becomes binding if witnessed by trustworthy individuals who know that language. Accordingly, the divorce pronounced by the man in question is valid and explicit. As for whether it is three divorces or one, it depends: if he repeated the word without separation and intended emphasis, then it is one; but if he intended to initiate a divorce with each utterance, then it is three according to the majority of scholars.