Is there anything else required of her after she performed Umrah while menstruating 20 years ago, and then recently repeated the Umrah after her divorce?
The majority of jurists stipulate purity (tahara) as a condition for the validity of the circumambulation (tawaf). Therefore, if a woman performs tawaf while menstruating, her tawaf is invalid, and she remains in a state of ihram. She is obliged to return to complete the rituals after she becomes pure. If sexual intercourse occurs, the umrah becomes invalidated, and it is obligatory to complete it, perform it as a make-up, renew the marriage contract, and offer a fidyah (expiation), unless she was ignorant, in which case she is excused. Children are attributed to the father.
The Hanafis, a narration from Imam Ahmad, and Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah are of the view that the tawaf of a menstruating woman or one with an excuse is valid. However, according to the Hanafis, a camel (badana) is required, according to the narration from Imam Ahmad, a sheep (shah) is required, and according to Shaykh al-Islam, nothing is required. Based on this opinion, the umrah is valid, and the marriage is valid.
The divorce that occurred in this marriage is valid, whether the marriage is considered valid or invalid, because it is a marriage about which there is a difference of opinion. The difference concerning the marriage is due to the woman being in a state of ihram or due to the invalidation of the umrah.
If she performed one umrah after the first, it serves as a completion for the umrah that was invalidated by sexual intercourse. You are required to perform a make-up for the invalidated umrah as soon as you are able. As for the prohibitions (mahzurat) like applying perfume, cutting hair, and trimming nails, nothing is required for them due to ignorance.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/29777