Does divorce occur with the statement, "Consider yourself divorced, and that you are forbidden to me like my mother," after two previous divorces, and in a state of intense anger?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Anger does not prevent the occurrence of divorce unless it removes one's sanity. As long as the questioner uttered the divorce of his wife twice, being aware of what he was saying, then two divorces have occurred. A written message containing an allusion to divorce or an explicit pronouncement of ẓihār does not result in divorce or ẓihār unless it is verbally uttered, or unless it is intended to effect divorce or ẓihār. However, if he intended divorce with this message, then divorce has occurred, and his wife has become irrevocably separated from him by a major separation (baynūnah kubrā).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/181507