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The question

Is the marriage to the aforementioned woman to be completed in light of family disputes and the father's desire to hold a wedding that violates Sharia, taking into account that the questioner had consummated the marriage with her and issued a revocable divorce?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

According to the Hanbalis, revoking a divorce is valid before consummation and after a valid seclusion, and the wife is considered to be under the husband's marital authority.

The principle is that the wife should reside where her husband resides and obey him. However, if she or her guardian stipulated at the time of the contract that the husband should not make her leave her family's home, and the husband agreed, then he is obligated to fulfill this condition.

Obedience to the father is not obligatory if he does not have a valid reason for his request or if harm is feared. The wife has the right to an independent dwelling.

Permissible singing is allowed. However, forbidden singing that includes musical instruments or obscene language is not allowed. There is no obedience to a creature in disobedience to the Creator.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
113535
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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