How authentic is the Hadith: "Feed your women dates, for whoever's food is dates, her child will be forbearing"?
The matter differs depending on the context from which the word is taken. However, if the intent is to interpret a statement away from its apparent meaning to another meaning, then there is a detailed explanation: If the other meaning has a legitimate religious proof, then there is no harm in it. This is considered an elucidation of the Lawgiver's intentions. An example of this is the interpretation by some scholars of certain attributes of Allah Almighty mentioned in the texts, such as His saying: "The Most Gracious is on the Throne and has ascended (istawa)," where some of the Salaf interpreted "istawa" as "taking control" rather than "sitting," in order to avoid anthropomorphism.
However, if the other meaning has no proof from the Sharia, but is merely arbitrary manipulation of the texts, then this is false and blameworthy. It is a distortion of words from their proper places. An example of this is the esoteric interpretation by the Batiniyyah of all Sharia texts with an inner meaning that diverts them from their apparent meaning, such as their saying regarding prayer that it is loyalty to the imams, and regarding zakat that it is the divulging of secrets. All of this is disbelief and heresy.
Therefore, the permissible interpretation is that which is supported by religious evidence. Anything other than that is a false interpretation, and one must be cautious of it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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