Does divorce occur with the words "talij" or "talish" when intending to avoid the word "talaq," knowing that the intention was not divorce, and that it is not the speaker's habit to pronounce the letter "qaf" as a "jeem" or a "sheen"?

If the husband replaces the word "taliq" (divorced) with "talij" out of caution against divorce occurring, then divorce does not occur with this pronouncement. However, if his dialect pronounces the letter "ṭāʾ" as a "tāʾ" or a "dāl," and the "qāf" as a "kāf," then divorce does occur and is considered explicit in his case.