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The question

Is it permissible for a man to practice polygyny if he agrees with his wives not to be just in the nightly lodging, and to postpone the issue of children, with his intention to divorce them after completing his business dealings in distant regions?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A husband must be just between his wives in terms of lodging. However, he is not obliged to equalize them in spending, gifts, and presents, as long as each of them receives her essential sufficiency. A woman may waive her right to equal division (of lodging) or maintenance, but she has the right to retract that waiver. Procreation is a shared right of both spouses, and they may agree to delay it. Marriage with the intention of divorce after a period is considered valid by the majority of scholars, unless this condition is stipulated in the contract. It is preferable not to have the intention of divorce when marrying.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
148279
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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