Does a divorce take place upon the husband's statement, "If you lie, everything between us is over," if ascertaining the truth depends on the wife's disclosure, or is its occurrence contingent upon the wife's admission of lying? And is the husband's statement, "I cannot afford a wedding," considered a divorce if the intention behind it was to avoid problems and not a sincere intention to separate?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The phrase mentioned ("everything between us is over") is an allusion to divorce. Thus, it does not constitute a divorce unless the husband intends it. If the husband intended divorce, it occurs if his wife told him that she lied to him. However, if he did not intend divorce, it does not occur. And the husband's statement: "I cannot afford a wedding" does not constitute a divorce.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/180881
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 180881
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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