What is the correct interpretation of the first verse of Surat At-Tahrim, given that there are two different interpretations of it in Tafsir Al-Jalalayn and Tafsir Ibn Kathir, both of which rely on different stories from the Sunnah?

Scholars have differed on two opinions regarding the reason for the revelation of the verse: {O Prophet, why do you prohibit what Allah has made lawful for you, seeking to please your wives?}

1. The issue of honey: The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, used to drink honey at Zaynab bint Jahsh's house. Aisha and Hafsa conspired to tell him that it had an undesirable smell (of Maghafir). So, he swore never to drink it again to please his wives. This is the opinion chosen by Ibn al-Arabi, al-Qurtubi, Ibn Kathir, and Ibn Ashour. 2. Prohibiting the slave-girl: The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, forbade his slave-girl Maria al-Qibtiyya to himself after Hafsa found him with her in her house and on her bed, which angered her. This is the opinion chosen by Ibn Atiyah and supported by al-Qasimi, who argued that such a prohibition is what co-wives seek to sever the connection with a rival, and that the Quran's emphasis on revealing an entire Surah (definition) reflects that the matter was significant and linked to intense jealousy.

Some scholars have mentioned both opinions together due to the possibility of each being supported by narrations, which is the view adopted by al-Tabari, al-Baghawi, and al-Sa'di.