Is a woman, upon whom the marriage contract has been concluded and who has had intercourse with her husband without the knowledge of her family—while still in her family's home and without having lost her virginity—considered to have been entered upon (madkhūlan bihā) in Islamic law, such that she is obligated to obey her husband in her family's home, or is she obligated to obey her father? And whom should she seek permission from when going out to visit relatives if there is a conflict in permission between the husband and the father?
If a man contracts a marriage with a woman, she becomes his wife, and it becomes permissible for him to have intercourse with her. If he has intercourse with her, he has truly consummated the marriage. However, this does not grant him the right to confine her, such that she cannot leave the house except with his permission. Rather, she should seek permission from her guardian for this, and her obedience is to her guardian, not to her husband, as long as she is in her guardian's home. Sheikh Ibn Baz was asked about this and he replied: "As long as she is with her family, he has no right over her until she moves to him and becomes in his house... The matter rests with her parents until she moves to him."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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