Can the husband's claim be valid that the telegram he sent to his wife was for threatening and disciplining her for leaving the house without his knowledge, and that he did not intend divorce by it, knowing that divorce between them had already occurred three times and was judicially proven?

If the husband admits to divorce falsely, the preponderant view is that it is effective judicially, but not religiously. That is, she remains his wife inwardly, and he is permitted to enjoy her if the judge has not separated them. However, if the husband does not know that divorce by writing requires intention, then the divorce does not occur. Therefore, the divorce that took place via telegraph in this case is not considered valid, and it is best to refer the matter to the Sharia courts.