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The question

If a man has intercourse with his wife during the daytime in Ramadan for two days, do they have to fast for four months or two months? And if one of them is unable to fast, is it sufficient to sponsor a family by feeding them for sixty days, or is it obligatory to feed sixty needy people on one day?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is not permissible for a person observing an obligatory fast to have intercourse with his wife during the daytime. The prohibition is even stronger during the daytime of Ramadan. Whoever invalidates his fast by intercourse must repent, make up the fast, and offer the major expiation (kaffarah kubra) for each day he had intercourse. An unwilling wife is not liable for expiation, nor for making up the fast, nor is she sinful. As for a willing wife, according to the majority of scholars, she must make up the fast and offer expiation, though some have favored the view that only making up the fast is obligatory for her. The expiation is: freeing a slave, or fasting for two consecutive months, or feeding sixty poor people. Whoever cannot find a slave and is unable to fast, should feed sixty poor people, giving each one a mudd (a specific measure of food). It is not permissible to give the food to a single family unless they consist of sixty poor people, and it is not necessary for the feeding to take place at one time.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy