Is the wife sinful if she asks for divorce due to her husband's neglect and refusal to engage in sexual relations? And what should be done in this situation?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Legally, a husband must treat his wife kindly, and this includes fulfilling her rights, especially sexual intercourse, which is one of the most emphasized and greatest rights. The obligatory sexual intercourse should be according to the wife's need and the husband's ability. Divorce is prohibited unless there is a legitimate reason, such as clear harm. The spouses should converse with each other kindly to maintain family stability and consider the children.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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