Does the divorce that occurred for the second time, in which I uttered the words "you are divorced" multiple times and "you are forbidden to me until the Day of Resurrection," count as a complete divorce or a second repudiation?

The determination of the number of divorces depends on the wording used and the intention of the speaker. If he repeats the word "divorce" intending to effect more than one divorce, then what he intended occurs. If he intended emphasis and not to effect more than one divorce, then only one divorce occurs. However, if he repeats the wording without any intention, then if he says: "You are divorced, you are divorced," two divorces occur. If he says: "You are divorced, divorced," one divorce occurs. This is the view of the majority of scholars, contrary to Ibn Taymiyyah. As for the statement "You are unlawful to me" (haramun alayya), if he intended it as an affirmation of the divorce, then no new ruling is entailed. If he intended it as a new initiation, then it reverts to the husband's intention. It is preferable to present the matter to the Sharia court or to trusted scholars.