If a man divorces his wife and then repeats the word out of forgetfulness or astonishment, without intending to issue a new divorce, is that considered a single divorce, as some scholars have ruled?
If the explicit word of divorce is repeated without the intention of effecting a new divorce, such as saying: "You are divorced, divorced, divorced," then only one divorce is binding. However, if the wording is "divorced, divorced, divorced" without attributing it to the wife, then there is a difference of opinion: some consider it a metaphorical expression by which divorce does not occur except with intention, while others consider it an explicit divorce. In the event of divorce, only one divorce is binding upon you as long as you did not intend to repeat the divorce. However, if you intended to repeat its occurrence, then the divorces you intended are effective according to the majority of scholars, and this is the preferred opinion, whereas Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah holds that only one divorce is binding.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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