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Will a wife be punished for her aversion to her sharp-tongued husband? Is she considered disobedient (nashiz) for not initiating marital relations and only responding to his explicit request? Does she have the right to demand a divorce?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

A woman must respond to her husband for intercourse if he calls her, unless she has a valid excuse. However, she is not obligated to offer herself to him. If she responds to him when he requests, without delay or showing dislike, then she is not considered disobedient (nashiz) for not initiating intimacy with him. It is advisable to communicate gently with the husband and remind him of the Prophet's (peace be upon him) admonition: "Treat women kindly," and his saying: "The best of you is the best to his family, and I am the best of you to my family." If this does not help, and he harms her with his words, then there is no blame upon her for seeking divorce, bearing in mind that divorce is not an easy matter and should not be resorted to unless all means of reconciliation have failed. If it is possible to remain together and live amicably, even by overlooking some minor faults, that would be preferable to separation.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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