What is the flaw in contemporary men's understanding of polygyny regarding the hadith of Nawfal ibn Mu'awiyah, and why is this hadith not considered proof for the permissibility of divorcing the first wife after she has aged in order to marry other younger women, taking into consideration the marriage of the Prophet, peace be upon him, to Khadijah and of Ibrahim, peace be upon him, to Sarah?

Divorce is originally permissible but is disliked if there is no need for it. A husband should reciprocate his wife's kindness with kindness, for loyalty is a characteristic of noble people and the ethics of prophets. However, this does not mean refraining from resorting to divorce when there is a need or a predominant benefit.

Polygyny is legislated due to its many benefits, but whoever desires it should exercise caution and consider its implications, as it might lead to the fragmentation of the family and the loss of children due to the husband's lack of wisdom and inability to manage jealousy. Some scholars have held that confining oneself to one wife is preferable, as it is safer for one's conscience from injustice, closer to preventing family fragmentation, and easier in fulfilling obligations. As for the noble verse: "Marry such women as seem good to you, two, three, or four; but if you fear that you will not be able to deal justly with them, then only one," its meaning is to state permissibility, not to encourage polygyny. Nevertheless, if one wife is not sufficient to keep a man chaste, then he is commanded to practice polygyny.