How can the word "ta" be considered an allusion to divorce, even though it is an incomplete word? And why is there insistence on the fatwa of conditional divorce despite the lack of explicit evidence for the majority? And is it always safer for the wife to remain under her husband's marital authority?

The word "ṭā" (طا) is not considered one of the allusions to divorce, even if the speaker intended divorce by it, because it is not customary to omit two letters from the end of a word. As for conditional divorce, the fatwa is based on the view of the majority of scholars, and the Mufti believes that the opinions of the majority are closer to what is correct. However, he does not fault anyone who adopts the view of Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah if they are comfortable with that opinion.