What is the ruling on someone who gave Zakat al-Fitr in money to poor non-Muslims, out of ignorance that it is only given to Muslims, and he now gives it as food? Is rice considered a staple food if it is rarely eaten? And is it permissible to give Zakat al-Fitr from processed foods like pasta if there is no predominant staple food? And is it obligatory for someone whom Allah has guided and who has repented to give Zakat al-Fitr for the years he did not pray?

First: There is no blame on whoever paid Zakat al-Fitr in cash, following those who permit it.

Second: Whoever paid zakat to someone they believed to be eligible has discharged their obligation, and mere belief suffices. Even if it later becomes clear that they paid it to a disbeliever, it is sufficient if their action aligns with the opinion of the diligent scholars, as Imam Abu Hanifa permitted paying Zakat al-Fitr to a disbeliever.

Third: Rice is considered a staple food in the fatwas of the Dar al-Ifta in your country. As for pasta, it is a predominant staple food in Libya. The permissibility of giving it as Zakat al-Fitr depends on the permissibility of giving items other than grains, such as flour and bread.

Fourth: According to the majority of scholars, one who abandons prayer due to laziness is a disobedient Muslim. They are still obligated to pay zakat, and it is not waived from their responsibility.