Divorce and Separation
1,425 questions
Does a divorce occur with the words, "By divorce, you will not enter any hairdresser whatsoever," if the wife violates this, knowing that she has not yet entered one? And if it does occur, must she be taken back by intercourse before the 'iddah expires, and is expiation required?
Is saying, "By talaq, I told her to be quiet" considered a divorce or an oath, if said in a state of anger, with doubt as to whether the action (telling the daughter to be quiet) actually occurred?
Is the wife considered to be irrevocably divorced by three pronouncements in the aforementioned situation, or has only one or two pronouncements of divorce occurred, taking into account the repetition of divorce pronouncements with the intention of not taking her back, engaging in sexual intercourse after reconciliation without witnesses, and the husband uttering words from which the wife understands his desire for separation without explicitly pronouncing divorce?
Does a husband’s saying to his wife, "You are free," constitute a divorce, whether he intends it as a threat and warning, or as a grant of freedom to act in a certain matter?
Is a divorce that occurred after intercourse that took place a day or two earlier accounted for, given that there was no knowledge of pregnancy at the time of intercourse? And is it possible to annul the marriage contract and renew it to cancel previous divorces, after the husband swore to divorce his wife if she sent an email to his ex-wife, and the wife sent it in a state of anger?
Is it permissible for a man to take back his ex-wife after an irrevocable divorce (طلاق بائن) in exchange for a debt owed to her father, knowing that the divorce was a single irrevocable divorce (طلقة واحدة بائنة)? And does this require a muhallil or is a new marriage contract sufficient?
Are the words "talqa" spoken by the husband to his wife, by which he meant a "bullet" (talqat مسدس) and not "divorce" (al-talaq in language), considered a divorce?
Is the phrase "Let your father spend on you" considered one of the allusions to divorce, and is uttering the word "talaq" (divorce) or "taliqah" (divorced) without attributing it to the wife considered a divorce, especially if this is due to obsessive-compulsive disorder and a fear of falling into divorce?
Is it permissible, Islamically, for a girl to seek divorce from her fiancé, to whom she is عقد قران (contractually married), without informing him of the real reason, because she is still attached to another person whom she could not forget?
Does divorce by allusion occur if the husband is unaware that divorce occurs thereby, bearing in mind that he does not recall his intention when he uttered it and he intended to scare his wife, not divorce?
What is the Sharia ruling on my continued marriage to a wife who lies, raises her voice at me, does not interact well, and is not skilled in household matters, knowing that I have tried to reform her many times but to no avail?
What is the ruling on divorce if it occurs while the wife is in a state of purity during which her husband had intercourse with her? And does "intercourse during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her" mean intercourse on the same day as the divorce, or after the completion of her menstrual cycle?
Is it permissible to retract an oath of divorce after saying: "By Allah, if I tell anyone, you are divorced with triple talaq"? And is this considered an oath of divorce, knowing that the intention was to threaten, not to divorce?
Does the husband's saying to his wife jokingly after the marriage contract, "I don't want you," or his saying to her during a dispute, "If you remain like this, then you are no longer necessary to me, and I will end what is between us," count as a divorce, even if he does not intend divorce?
Does a divorced woman inherit from her ex-husband after marrying another man and having children with him?
What is the waiting period (iddah) for a girl who stayed in her husband's house for more than twenty days, and there was a lawful seclusion (khalwah shar'iyyah) between them, then she returned to her father's house and was divorced, and she married two weeks after her divorce? And what is the validity of her second marriage if she was still in her waiting period (iddah)?
Is the delegation of divorce to an apostate woman, and her revocation of that delegation, considered valid if the the woman repents and returns to Islam while still in her waiting period ('iddah)?
Is the statement "I say things that lead to separation" considered an acknowledgment of divorce, especially since it was uttered during a moment of whispered temptation and was not true, and I regretted it and was in a bad psychological state?
Can a Qatari man who divorced his wife three times without having witnesses for each divorce return to her without her marrying another man then divorcing him?
Is it Islamically permissible for a husband to divorce his ex-wife a second and third time after the expiration of her iddah from the first divorce, and without him taking her back into his responsibility, due to her need for this divorce?
Is the fiancé's statement to his fiancée, "I'm done with you, you deceived me," considered a divorce, especially if he said it jokingly and in a context where he did not intend divorce?
Is it permissible to marry a woman who has been Islamically divorced without documenting her divorce, knowing that official papers will indicate she is a virgin due to the absence of a divorce certificate?
Is "Allahu Akbar" considered a euphemism for divorce, especially since it is a phrase uttered at the point of severance?
Is saying "yes" in response to the question "Don't you want your wife?" considered a veiled divorce pronouncement, especially if the speaker suffers from obsessive thoughts of divorce and intended divorce but doesn't know whether his statement causes it or not? And what is the intention required for divorce to occur for someone with obsessive thoughts? And does the divorce of someone with obsessive thoughts occur if he becomes certain of it due to words he uttered?