Divorce and Separation
1,425 questions
Is the phrase "I will hit you with a shoe" considered one of the allusions to divorce such that a divorce takes place with the husband's intention, or are the allusions to divorce confined to specific phrases?
Is a khul' that occurred in court considered the divorce of an angry person, knowing that there were family problems and a desire to avert harm, and is the husband considered to be under duress?
What is the ruling regarding a man's statement to his wife, "You are unlawful to me," in a moment of anger, and does this entail an expiation for Dhihar or a divorce?
What is the ruling of Islamic law regarding a triple divorce pronounced by a husband who uses Captagon and suffers from a mental illness, given that the wife has no one and does not wish to leave her children with him?
Does a divorce issued by the husband immediately after intercourse following a quarrel count, given that he is constantly angry and abusive, frequently swears by divorce, and claims that he was in a state of extreme anger in which he did not know what he was saying?
Is a triple divorce effected by saying "You are divorced, divorced, divorced" in a text message, bearing in mind that a previous divorce occurred during a period of purity in which the wife was intercoursed?
Who has more right to the custody of a 4-year-old girl: her father, who resides in Dammam, or her mother, who is married to another man and resides in Riyadh? And does the previous agreement regarding alimony and travel in the divorce decree apply to the maternal grandmother if custody is transferred to her?
Is living with one's husband, under the circumstances mentioned above, after three divorces, considered unlawful, given that the judge, the Dar al-Ifta (House of Fatwas), and others have stated that the divorce did not occur because it was an innovated divorce (talaq bid'i) and took place during a period of purity in which intercourse occurred, and based on the husband's intention?
Does uttering "talaq talata" (I divorce you thrice) during a quarrel constitute a divorce if the speaker is unaware of the gravity of the statement, and can the wife be taken back in such a case?
Does the husband's statement "She is triply divorced if she enters her family's house" count as a divorce, or is there an expiation for it?
Does divorce occur if a husband stipulates that his wife not spend the night outside the marital home after 12:0 AM, except in two cases (his death or an oath of divorce), and then the wife stays at her family's home after 12:0 AM due to an emergency, not knowing that what the husband meant by "spending the night" was staying after that time?
Is what the questioner did—fondling his wife and fulfilling his desire without intercourse, then offering an expiation for an oath two days later—correct, given that he swore by divorce not to have intercourse with her for three months, and his intention was to threaten?
Will a wife be punished for her aversion to her sharp-tongued husband? Is she considered disobedient (nashiz) for not initiating marital relations and only responding to his explicit request? Does she have the right to demand a divorce?
What is the ruling on the triple divorce pronouncements uttered by the husband in the aforementioned cases? And is it considered an actual, innovative, or non-occurring divorce?
Does a divorce occur if the wife speaks on her phone after an oath of divorce was sworn that she would not speak on it, and does the ruling differ if the phone and SIM card are changed?
Is a single repudiation incurred by the utterance "You are divorced, divorced, divorced" with the intention of divorce and separation, and is it permissible for the husband to take his wife back after the intervention of friends and her pledge to improve her behavior, especially since they have four children?
Does a divorce take effect if the husband pronounces it while in a state of extreme anger due to an argument with his wife, knowing that this is the third divorce?
Is this considered a divorce (talaq) even if the intention to divorce was not recalled at the time of the oath?
Is it permissible to take back one's wife after having issued a single oath of divorce to her, knowing that this occurred after an argument between the spouses, and the husband asked the wife's father not to let him utter it, but the wife insisted?
Is it permissible to seek divorce due to anger over the return of the husband's parents before the scheduled time, and the subsequent misunderstanding and quarrel with the husband, knowing that they are the paternal uncles?
Do these three divorces count: the first, which was issued without intent under the influence of my wife's provocation and her saying: "Be a man and divorce me"? And the second, which was intended as a threat when I said to my wife: "If you do it, you will be divorced," and she did it? And the third, which was also intended as a threat when I said to my wife: "If you do not travel within a week, you will be divorced," and she did not travel, then we traveled together before the end of the week?
Is a husband's asking his wife, "Are you my wife?" and her negative response, made in jest, considered a divorce, knowing that he did not intend divorce and they were joking?
Do the words, "Until now I love her and I am unable to forget her, her image is always in my mind, never leaving me. Everything around me reminds me of her memory. She has left me with a memory in everything that reminds me," said to the wife as a gesture of endearment, constitute a veiled reference to divorce, and does divorce occur thereby?
What is the ruling on a marriage that took place without a legal contract, or witnesses, or announcement, and lasted for a year and a half, and is it permissible for the woman to conceal this marriage and her previous actions when she marries in the future, and what are the consequences of that?